Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why do some young mothers trick a guy into believing that they're pregnant and it's their child when years later they find out that it's not even theirs should he still pay child support or not?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why do atheists not love a G-d that does not stop punishing them harder and harder in this world and the next until they surrender to Him?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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